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2011年4月27日星期三

Certification Watch Volume

Certification news regarding certifications and IT pay, Agile project management, Oracle 11g Master exam, extension of the ISACA CRISC grandfathering program, a PgMP update, and new exams from TIBCO, Juniper Networks and HP.




2011 Salary Report Finds IT Pay Down, but Certifications Help
A survey of over 12,000 IT professionals recently conducted by Global Knowledge and Tech Republic found that IT salaries are down overall from last year, but IT professionals who took training during the last year earned on average more than 4% more than their colleagues who didn't hit the books. In particular, the study says, professionals who had earned an IT or project management certification during the past five years earned an average of $2,720 more than their counterparts. The full report, which includes a "Salary by Certification" table, can be downloaded from the Global Knowledge website.

PMI to Offer Agile Certification
The Project Management Institute is working on a new certification related to Agile project management expertise. While PMI's Project Management Professional (PMP) designation focuses on leading and directing product teams, the new PMI Agile certification will credential skills specific to Agile principles and practices used to manage projects. A pilot version of the certification will become available later this year, and candidates can apply to be part of it beginning in May. Read the official announcement in the GoCertify industry news center for info on how to take part.


Oracle 11g Certified Master Exam Now Live
If you're ready to prove you're a mega-expert on Oracle database and have $2,000 handy, the 2-day, hands-on practical exam for Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Master is now open to registration. To learn what you'll need to know – visit Oracle's OCM page.

ISACA Extends CRISC Grandfathering Program
ISACA has extended the deadline for applying to obtain the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) designation without taking the exam until June 30, 2011. To qualify, you'll have to demonstrate at least 8 years of experience related to the design, implementation, monitoring and maintenance of risk-based information systems controls. Individuals with less experience have to pass the CRISC exam. Registration for the first-ever CRISC exam (on June 11) closes this week on April 6.

Major Update to PMI PgMP Exam Coming January 1, 2012
In other Project Management Institute (PMI) news, the organization plans to replace its current PgMP exam with a new exam on January 1, 2012. The new exam will reflect substantial changes to the material covered, including the addition of entirely new subject domains and the reorganization of existing domains. You will not be able to take the current exam once the new exam is released. A FAQ is available on the PMI website, and objectives for the new exam have been posted.

New Exam, Certification from TIBCO
On April 1, TIBCO released a new exam and certification. The certification, TIBCO Certified Professional for Architecting Composite Applications and Services with TIBCO, is for individuals who design and oversee implementation of SOA style architectures using TIBCO products. The exam costs $300, and full objectives are available on TIBCO's website.

New Junos Security Exam from Juniper Networks
Juniper Networks will release the Juniper Networks Certified Internet Professional – Security (JNCIP-SEC) exam, on April 15, 2011. The scenario-based exam consists of 75 questions related to Junos OS for SRX Series devices and has a 90-minute time limit. Testing is through Prometric. The hands-on lab exam for the expert level Junos security certification is slated for release in June 2011. Details of other certifications for Junos security are available on the Juniper Networks website.

HP Adds New AIS - StorageWorks Certification
On April 1, HP released a new foundation-level storage certification: HP AIS - StorageWorks Integration [2011]. This will replace the current HP AIS - StorageWorks [2008], which will be retired in August. The new credential requires passing 2 exams. There is no upgrade path.


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2011年4月25日星期一

5 hot IT certification picks for 2011

Certifications have always been beneficial to IT job seekers, but lately there's increased emphasis on vendor- and technology-specific training as the economy begins to recover and companies look to plug talent holes in their IT organizations.
"There are great opportunities in technology, but there is increased competition for jobs," says Ray Kelly, CEO of certification provider Certiport. "I have never seen a time like today where there is such a focus on certifications."

When the economy tanked, certifications became more important for IT pros who wanted to make themselves more employable.
"For the past couple of years, the economy has been challenging, but from a technical education standpoint it has been a positive market," says Fred Weiller, director of marketing for Learning@Cisco. "In pure volume, the foundation technologies such as routing and switching -- without which no network exists -- represent a huge amount of our certification portfolio."
These days, Cisco Certified Internetwork Experts see virtualization as the top networking investment area (cited by 67% of 970 CCIEs polled by Illuminas on behalf of Cisco). Another 64% say security and risk management will continue to be the networking skills in greatest demand -- an expectation echoed by Weiller.
Already, "professionals with 'cyber' on their resume can command a 20% salary premium as both the public and private sectors are becoming more aggressive in building their security talent pipeline," notes Thomas Silver, senior vice president at Dice. The high-tech job board listed more than 62,000 tech jobs available as of early April, about half of which are contract or part-time positions.
Determining the best IT certification to pursue depends on an individual's existing skill level, career goals and accessibility to training. Here we detail five of the hottest IT certifications for 2011.
1. VMware Certified Professional
The VMware Certified Professional (VCP) program, now available on vSphere 4 (VCP4), seems like a no-brainer. With virtualization technology growing within the majority of organizations, it is critical that the talent pool keep up with the technology. Yet recentresearch shows that enterprises are worried about a lack of expertise specific to virtualization. New skills need to be acquired for virtual systems, and new management and automation technologies must be introduced into the environment to truly reap the rewards of virtualization. According to Forrester Consulting, which interviewed 257 IT professionals on behalf of CA, "the proper skills for the future are difficult to attain and retain."
2. Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist
Microsoft continues to dominate most desktops in U.S. business. Its Windows operating system boasts more than 91% market share, according to March figures from Net Market Share, and Microsoft has seen accelerated interest in the latest revision, Windows 7.
"Microsoft continues to leave its computing fingerprints on most desktops," says Forrester Research analyst Sheri McLeish.
IT professionals who become a Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS) can prove their abilities around implementing, building, troubleshooting and debugging specific Microsoft technologies, such as a Windows operating system, Microsoft Exchange Server, Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft Visual Studio. (Check out this 9 year-old, who's working on his fifth Microsoft certification.)
"In terms of training and certification, we have seen the fastest ramp up on Windows 7 than any technology in the past five years," says Chris Pirie, general manager of sales and marketing for Microsoft Learning. "We are anticipating a big wave of desktop refreshes and we will be having a new wave of Office software this summer. Certification is very hot for us right now."
3. Cisco Certified Architect
IT professionals with a few certifications under their belts could consider upgrading to what has been dubbed the Ph.D. in Cisco.
The network giant last year added to its educational roster with a new level of certification, theCisco Certified Architect (CCAr). While Cisco boasts more than 20,000 CCIEs worldwide, the vendor decided to build another layer of expertise on top of its proven certification program. The CCAr requires applicants to already be certified as Cisco Certified Design Experts(CCDE) and have 10 years of experience. The training for CCAr would equip IT professionals with the C-level know-how and skills to prevent wasteful investments on technology and better align network projects with business goals, according to Cisco.
"One of the key things we are testing or investigating is the ability for a candidate to understand the business side and translate that into technology demands," Cisco's Weiller says. "The CCAr builds upon the CCDE program, which in itself is very much in demand. Networks have become very sophisticated and to be able to design and build a network that can adapt to changing needs and stand the test of time is critically important in making an individual successful in a networking career."
4. CompTIA Strata Green IT
While vendor-specific knowledge and foundational certifications seem a prerequisite for most jobs, IT professionals in 2010 should also consider amping up their vendor-neutral skills around technologies that continue to gain attention from high-tech as well as business leaders.
"From CompTIA's perspective, entry-level certifications such as the A+ and Network+ are going through the roof, and we are seeing double-digit growth in Security+ certifications," says Terry Erdle, senior vice president of skills certification at CompTIA (Computer Technology Industry Association).
Building on the basics, CompTIA just announced a new training track, green IT. CompTIA'sStrata Green IT certificate is recommended for IT professionals with 18 months of technical experience and IT credentials such as CompTIA A+ or Server+, and the program is designed to show that a candidate is schooled in power management as well as virtualization techniques. The certification also includes training on developing and calculating ROI for green IT initiatives and knowledge of environmentally sound waste disposal techniques.
"We just launched the Strata Green IT certification to help build the funnel from the lower end to the higher end for people with advanced skills. The best thing we as a nonprofit in the IT industry can do is help fix the unemployment problem in the country, and we do that by adding such advanced skills training to address emerging employment needs," Erdle says.
5. ITIL v3 Foundations
For many, the goal this year is to streamline IT operations, adding automation where possible, while at the same time increasing services to users. The premise of overhauling the way IT works is outlined in the IT Infrastructure Library, or ITIL (Version 3 is currently being adopted).
With four levels of ITIL certification, IT professionals can prove they understand the principals around service life-cycle management and apply them to real-world environments. Companies seeking such expertise would likely desire a candidate who couples ITIL skills with security or other technical expertise. Considered more of a process-oriented area, ITIL can still deliver benefits such as improved availability, faster problem resolution and reduced costs due to streamlined processes.
"Whether you want to call them soft skills or business skills, IT professionals need communications skills, they need to be able to manage a project, and they need ITIL skills to show they understand the service lifecycle," Cisco's Weiller says. "Individuals need all these skills, not just technical skills."



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2011年4月24日星期日

5 Top Certification Mistakes to Avoid

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In the IT Industry, certification has become a globally recognized tool for professional development. Globally there is a huge need for qualified IT specialists. This has resulted in a mad, or is it gold, rush into certification. Certification is now a buzzword in IT. Unfortunately, many who go through the certification process get their fingers burnt. Even though certification has been a powerful advancement tool for some time, it has not been smooth sailing in all cases. There are many fallacies running riot within the industry regarding the requirements to get into and be successful in the I.T. industry. Let us attempt to look at the most common certification mistakes with a view to getting certification candidates to avoid them.

We will look at why it is possible to spend money, time and effort and still not get the desired results. We will not be able to cover every single certification blunder, but let's look at the 5 most common howlers.

1. Choosing a certification because it is hot.

This is a common problem I encounter with most certification candidates. They have no idea of what the certification involves but they love it because it is hot. Should you be picking a certification that does not match what you want to do or be? Do you know what you want to do or be? Don't just go for an MCSE and assume you'll make it. Going for certification for the wrong reasons is wasteful and unreasonable. Are you new in IT? Your first step towards a successful career should be researching the different options available. Learn about these options. Yes, you may love computers, but what aspect? What is your background? Skill base? Personality? All of these factors can tell you not only if you're really cut out for IT, but what type of IT field might be best for you. MCSEs, for instance, look after Microsoft servers and networks. But if programming is your passion, go for a developer's certification such as MCSD or Java. For those already in IT, are you choosing a certification because your job requires this specific certification or is it a crucial step in the direction of your long-term career goals? Otherwise, it may not be worth your time and resources. Whether you're new to IT or already in IT, certification should not be seen just as a meal ticket. It should be part of an individual's career development strategy. Don't rush into it because it is the vogue in town. Depending on what stage you're at and your career interests, your need for certification and type of certification vary from individual to individual. Certification is only for you if you have identified your career goals and you see it as a tool for getting you from where you are to where you should be. The worst thing you can do is to choose a certification without thinking about your long-term career path.

2. Underestimating the real cost of certification.

How much does it cost to get certified? Too often we underestimate the costs involved. Most people believe it is just a matter of the funds required for training, books, training CDs, manuals and the certification exams. A good certification is built on the realization that money is not the only resource you need to get happily certified. I know quite a few people who register for courses but who keep on dropping out due to one commitment or the other. You've paid for the training and you've bought the books, but how committed are you? Do you have the drive and zeal that requires reading, attending training sessions, and practicing? Do you love studying? How will you handle your other commitments, social, work or family? When it comes down to the crunch, can you make the effort? Sometimes, it even requires extra effort. Most especially if you already have a tight schedule. Are you capable or ready to read and master (not cram) your certification objectives? Sometimes with certification, the going gets tougher. It is a shame that many spend so much to acquire certification resources, but they never really get off the mark when it comes to effort. Candidates who are successful in certification ALL possess the drive and motivation to succeed and advance their careers. Success with certification costs more than just training, certification tools and materials; without effort you're going nowhere.

3. Going to sleep after getting certified.

Many certification candidates believe that once they are certified they no longer have to work to increase their skills. It will be a big mistake for any professional to simply bask in the euphoria of getting certified and forget about continuing requirements. Once you achieve the certification you must set new goals. As stated earlier certification is not an end in itself. It is a career development driver. At each stage in your career you have to ask yourself: Where am I? Where do I want to be? How do I get there? If you stand still, your technical skills will stagnate. To stay ahead, you have to keep on learning. If you don't continuously develop your self the value of your certification falls. How can you hate continuous self-development and hope to succeed in the IT industry? It's no wonder, re-certification requirements are becoming more common. Going to sleep after getting certified means you wasted your time and money.

4. Failing to prepare equals preparing to fail.

Poor preparation is a major killer of certification aspirations. It is not enough to choose a training center. Many fail because they choose the wrong training center. How did you marry your training with your exams? Do you need or did you take any time for revision after training? Did you go for the test without knowing the exam simply because you're an expert on the field? What are your study habits like? Are you a smart guy that doesn't need to study? Or are you the cramming expert? If you prepare for certification based on cramming, you fool no one but yourself. And you have to be truthful to yourself; do you have the work experience needed for that certification? Too often candidates don't prepare well due to overconfidence, ignorance of preparation options and poor personal organization. How can you succeed if your arrangements are too little, badly organized, and too late?

5. Unrealistic expectations.

Going into certification for the wrong reasons breeds unrealistic expectations which eventually leads to frustration and dissatisfaction. Here are some of the expectations: "A certification is required to get a job in the I.T. industry. Certifications are my ticket to success. Get certified and get your dream job! Certification rules the IT industry. Certification is a goldmine. A guarantee of career success." But is certification really your gold card to IT career success? Failure to understand what certification is all about leads to unrealistic expectations Let's smash these myths to smithereens once and for all. Certification is no guarantee of career success! Period! In most cases, it takes experience, dedication and a lot of hard work to ensure IT career success. There are no free giveaways in life. It's not certification, but job effectiveness and planning that count most. You must consider these two factors in making any certification decision. Employers aren't just paying for a piece of paper--they want job effectiveness. You must not only be able to do the job assigned; you must do it meeting high standards, within budget and on time. Certification tests product knowledge, logical thinking, and problem-solving approaches.

But clients and employers demand the combination of experience, knowledge and skills. Certification can't give you experience.The real world is more complex than the world of certification. Quite often you have to get your hands dirty to gain important knowledge that is not tested in any exam. Furthermore certification focuses to a large extent on technical skills. You cannot succeed in IT with tech skills alone. Do you know how to deal with customers? More often the industry is looking for those who have experience, skills, and solid ethics attitude first, before education," To succeed in IT you need people skills, resourcefulness, knowledge, experience and a corporate focus. So, if you are considering going in for a certification program, make sure you understand what you are signing up for, and your likely future once you complete the program. Get informed from career counselors, past candidates, IT managers and from industry, to have a more realistic view of the value of the certification programs as well as its likely future prospects, and how it fits into your career strategy.

The success of your certification choices depends on a combination of career focus, planning, resourcefulness and hard work.

Mr. Jide Awe is the Founder of Jidaw.com and has been involved in information technology for over 18 years in the Banking, Computing and Telecommunications industries. With his strong background in IT and business management, he consults for different organizations and provides career advice for IT professionals through various media. Send comments, questions or queries to md@jidaw.com.

JIDAW Systems Ltd. is a Corporate Member of the Computer Association of Nigeria (COAN), that has contributed significantly to the growth and development of Computer Technology in Nigeria and is among the first set of training institutions to be accredited by the Computer Professionals Registration Council of Nigeria (CPN) to carry out Computer training in Nigeria.

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2011年4月22日星期五

Free C_TB1200_07 study material SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007

Free C_TB1200_07 study material SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007.




1.

The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?

A.Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales manager gets informed automatically.

B.Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales manager gets informed automatically.

C.Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.

D.Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.

Answer:A

2.

Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical point. What is the easiest way of doing this?

A.In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the purchasing manager.

B.In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls below this threshold.

C.Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.

D.In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level' indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the purchasing manager automatically receives a message.

Answer:C

3.

The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer: price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?

A.1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in the business partner master data

B.1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer

C.1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for the customer

D.1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document

Answer:A

4.

I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for another business partner in the past. Is this possible?

A.Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document type, then select a quotation from another business partner.

B.Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'. You can now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.

C.You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.

D.You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.

Answer:A

5.

A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you recommend?

A.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.

B.Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all deliveries for the relevant month.

C.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.

D.Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.

Answer:A





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2011年4月20日星期三

Which apple certification is right for you? Training and Certification

Mac OS X
Apple offers Mac OS X certifications designed for system administrators, technical coordinators, and support professionals responsible for planning, supporting, and integrating Mac OS X and Mac OS X Server solutions in a multi-platform environment.


Pro Applications
Apple's professional digital applications are the standard for professional photographers, filmmakers, editors, sound designers, music producers, and multimedia artists. Certifications are available for all applications, including Aperture, Color, Compressor, DVD Studio Pro, Final Cut Pro, Final Cut Server, Logic Pro, Motion, and Soundtrack Pro.


iWork
Apple's Associate Certification program was designed with educators and students in mind. Earn Apple Certified Associate status for the iWork application suite to demonstrate entry-level skills and build credibility.


Xsan and Media Administration
Apple's Xsan and Media Administration certifications verify an ability to install and configure systems, architect and maintain networks, customize and troubleshoot services, and integrate Final Cut Studio, Final Cut Server, and other Mac OS X Technologies within an Xsan installation.


Certified Trainer
Share your knowledge. If you're an industry expert or training professional, or simply passionate about sharing your Apple technology expertise, consider becoming certified to deliver Apple's curriculum as an Apple Certified Trainer.


AppleCare Service
Apple Certified Macintosh Technician certification is available for portable and desktop service technicians, and also qualifies you to work for Apple Authorized Service Providers.


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2011年4月18日星期一

Certification Watch Volume

Certification news regarding certifications and IT pay, Agile project management, Oracle 11g Master exam, extension of the ISACA CRISC grandfathering program, a PgMP update, and new exams from TIBCO, Juniper Networks and HP.
2011 Salary Report Finds IT Pay Down, but Certifications Help
A survey of over 12,000 IT professionals recently conducted by Global Knowledge and Tech Republic found that IT salaries are down overall from last year, but IT professionals who took training during the last year earned on average more than 4% more than their colleagues who didn't hit the books. In particular, the study says, professionals who had earned an IT or project management certification during the past five years earned an average of $2,720 more than their counterparts. The full report, which includes a "Salary by Certification" table, can be downloaded from the Global Knowledge website.
PMI to Offer Agile Certification
The Project Management Institute is working on a new certification related to Agile project management expertise. While PMI's Project Management Professional (PMP) designation focuses on leading and directing product teams, the new PMI Agile certification will credential skills specific to Agile principles and practices used to manage projects. A pilot version of the certification will become available later this year, and candidates can apply to be part of it beginning in May. Read the official announcement in the GoCertify industry news center for info on how to take part.
Oracle 11g Certified Master Exam Now Live
If you're ready to prove you're a mega-expert on Oracle database and have $2,000 handy, the 2-day, hands-on practical exam for Oracle Database 11g Administrator Certified Master is now open to registration. To learn what you'll need to know – visit Oracle's OCM page.
ISACA Extends CRISC Grandfathering Program
ISACA has extended the deadline for applying to obtain the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) designation without taking the exam until June 30, 2011. To qualify, you'll have to demonstrate at least 8 years of experience related to the design, implementation, monitoring and maintenance of risk-based information systems controls. Individuals with less experience have to pass the CRISC exam. Registration for the first-ever CRISC exam (on June 11) closes this week on April 6.

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Oracle hangs up the gloves on OpenOffice

Now an open source community project.


Oracle has announced that it will no longer offer a commercial version of desktop productivity suite 'OpenOffice', which it inherited from Sun Microsystems in 2009.
The vendor said it would transfer OpenOffice.org to a “purely community-based open source project” but has not revealed any details on whether this referred to The Document Foundation, a splinter group of OpenOffice.org responsible for the LibreOffice suite.
The Document Foundation was formed in 2010 over fears for OpenOffice's future under Oracle's ownership.
"Given the breadth of interest in free personal productivity applications and the rapid evolution of personal computing technologies, we believe the OpenOffice.org project would be best managed by an organisation focused on serving that broad constituency on a non-commercial basis," said Edward Screven, Oracle's chief corporate architect in a statement.
“Oracle will continue to strongly support the adoption of open standards-based document formats, such as the Open Document Format (ODF)," Screven added.
The most suitable home for OpenOffice would be The Document Foundation, according to one of the group's Dutch volunteers, Cor Nouws, posting on the organisation's blog.
Nouws described Oracle's decision as a "remarkable change in course.
"This is a big step forward in the direction that I expressed as a wish at the time that The Document Foundation started: that the two paths [of OpenOffice.org] will merge again," Nouws said. "And look, as per today Oracle searches a group, a community, that does want to give a home to OpenOffice.org. Me thinks that Oracle will get a warm welcome from The Document Foundation."
The Document Foundation commandeered the OpenOffice.org project in September 2010 and has since released its first stable version of LibreOffice in January 2011.
The foundation has garnered support from Google, Red Hat, Novell and Canonical (Ubuntu OS) amongst others, and unveiled the beta of its second major LibreOffice release late last week.
Oracle said it would continue to invest in Linux and MySQL, which were widely used by its enterprise and government customers.



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2011年4月17日星期日

9L0-006 braindumps

Apple 9L0-006 exam has became more and more popular in recent year. As a hot topic under Apple certification, it catches the most IT exam candidates' attention. At my facebook, you will find the best preparation materials for 9L0-006 exam questions. We never stop updating the latest 9L0-006 exam real questions and answers for all of you.every day our facebook will share many free real IT questions and answers.

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2011年4月15日星期五

Free LOT-952 exam questions on facebook

IBM LOT-952 exam has became more and more popular in recent year. As a hot topic under Apple certification, it catches the most IT exam candidates' attention. At my facebook, you will find the best preparation materials for LOT-952 exam questions. We never stop updating the latest LOT-952 exam real questions and answers for all of you.every day our facebook will share many free real IT questions and answers.
Free LOT-952 exam questions, LOT-952 pratice test are now shared as follows. Please note, some of them are the real LOT-952 exam questions.1.Herb has some data to display in a form, and he would like to have it display in a formatted grid. What
option would he use to format this data layout?
A.Create > Table
B.Create > Layer
C.Create > Section > Table
D.Create > Layout Region > Table
Answer:A
2.Lynne created a Book Review application that has a default access level of Author. She created a
Review document, but was unable to edit the document later. Why would this problem occur?
A.The document form design does not include a Readers type field.
B.The document form design does not include an Authors type field.
C.Her ACL entry needs to have the Edit document option selected.
D.She needs at least Author access with the Create Documents option selected.
Answer:B
3.Peter is working on the Sales Discussions application. He is building a new view that should display all
main documents, and also all documents that have been submitted in response to the main documents or
in response to other comments. Peter is trying to determine which @Function refers to all Response and
Response to Response documents of parent documents. Which formula meets Peters needs?
A.@Responses
B.@AllChildren
C.@AllResponses
D.@AllDescendants
Answer:D
4.Norma has a form action that allows users to create comments for the existing document. When Norma
views the form in her Web browser she sees the action, but when she opens the form in her Notes client,
the action is not visible. Which one of the following should she do to correct the problem?
A.Make sure the comments form has a default access for all readers and above.
B.Make the action a shared action and disable the Hide-when settings for Web browsers.
C.Check that the Web Access property for the action bar is not set to Display Using Java Applet.
D.Check the action Hide-when settings to make sure that the action is available for Notes 4.6 or later.
Answer:D
5.Which one of the following accurately describes field names?
A.They must be unique in a database.
B.They must include text and a number.
C.They can only be used once in a view.
D.They can only be used once on each form.
Answer:D
6.Victor has a field that allows the user to enter the list price of a video. What type of field makes sure that
the value of that field is numeric?
A.Number
B.Dollar
C.Currency
D.Text field with @TextToCurrency Input Validation formula
Answer:A
7.Judy has created a private agent to update the Readers fields in the Video Rental application. She
wants to allow Jason to use the same agent. How can she do this task?
A.Change the agent property from private to shared.
B.Copy the agent from her workstation to a Domino server.
C.Add Jason's fully canonical name to the agent's Readers list.
D.Delete the agent. She must create it again as a shared agent.
Answer:A
8.When Eduardo tried to save a document, he got the following error message: Incorrect data type for
operator or @Function: Text Expected. Which one of the following did he most likely do to cause this error
to happen?
A.He entered text in a number field.
B.He neglected to place a formula in a validation event.
C.He neglected to place a formula in a translation event.
D.He combined a text field and a time field in a formula.
Answer:D
9.Roberto has been asked to modify the Membership view in the Video Rental application. A green check
mark should display in the Approved view column for each document where membership has been
approved. He set the view column property to Display values as icons, and now he needs to write a
column formula. What is the column formula he needs to use?
A.@If(Approved = "Yes"; 82; 0)
B.@If(Approved = "Yes"; @OpenImageResource("checkmark.gif"); "")
C.@If(Approved = "Yes"; @Icon(82); @Icon(0))
D.@If(Approved = "Yes"; @Column(82); @Column(0))
Answer:A
10.Robert does not want Authors in the Video database's ACL to be able to edit certain fields in
documents that they created. Which one of the following can he do to accomplish this task?
A.Set field security options to Must have at least Editor access to use.
B.Use a Readers field on the form to prevent access to existing documents.
C.Use an Authors field on the form to prevent access to existing documents.
D.Create a standard section on the form and put the restricted fields in the section.
Answer:A
11.Tony would like to make it easier for users of the Video application to enter new documents using the
Video form. He'd like users to be able to create new Video documents while in a view. Which one of the
following should Tony do to build this interface?
A.Create a view action that has the following formula: @Command([Create]; "Video").
B.Create a form action that has the following formula: @Command([Compose]; "Video").
C.Create a view action that has the following formula: @Command([Compose]; "Video").
D.Create a database action that has the following formula: @Command([Create]; "Video").
Answer:C
12.Stacee has been asked to add a feature to the Video Rental application. Users should be able to drag
videos into a Favorites area for future access. What design feature would allow Stacee to add this
functionality?
A.Views
B.Agents
C.Folders
D.Custom user views
Answer:C
13.Mickey wants to allow soft deletions in his database. How does he enable this action?
A.By selecting the Advanced Database property, Allow soft deletions.
B.By selecting the Form property Allow soft deletions, for all forms that should have this property.
C.He doesn't need to do anything. All databases on a Domino server have soft deletions enabled
automatically.
D.By adding a field called $SoftDelete, with a computed value of "1", to all documents that should have
soft deletions enabled.
Answer:A
14.Yuki wants to add a field to her form that allows multiple values to be selected or cleared by clicking
next to the item. What type of field should she use?
A.Text
B.Checkbox
C.Combobox
D.Radio Button
Answer:B
15.Rita has built an agent that changes documents with an Approved status to a status of Ready To Pay.
When creating a scheduled agent, what are her options for the schedule frequency?
A.Hourly, Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Annually
B.Once, Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Annually, Never
C.On Startup, On Shutdown, Daily, Weekly, Monthly
D.More than once a day, Daily, Weekly, Monthly, Never
Answer:D
16.When a user clicks a link in the left frame of the Review application, the linked data displays in the
frame on the right. Which one of the following did Kristin do to allow this action to happen?
A.Entered the name of the target frame in Hotspot properties
B.Entered the name of the target frame in Frameset properties
C.Entered the position of the target frame in Frame properties
D.Entered the position of the target frame in Hotspot properties
Answer:A
17.Jonas has created a section on the Site Visit form and he would like it to be collapsed when the form is
opened in the Notes client. How can he configure his application to accomplish this task?
A.There is no way to do this; sections always open expanded.
B.Modify the section property Opened for Reading to auto-hide.
C.Change the section type from standard to controlled access.
D.Modify the section property Opened for Reading to auto-collapse.
Answer:D
18.Heidi selected a document in a view and selected the menu option Edit > Copy As > Document Link.
What did this selection do?
A.Created a new copy of the document in the database.
B.Copied the unique ID of the document to the Windows clipboard.
C.Created a new document in the database that is a Response document to the selected document.
D.Copied reference information about the document to the Windows clipboard, that can be pasted as a
doclink in a Notes rich text field.
Answer:D
19.Erica has created a Registration form for the Customer Orders application. She has set the Type
option of the Pwd field to Password. What do users see displayed as they populate the Pwd field?
A.An asterisk displays for each character that is typed.
B.The encrypted value of each character is displayed as the user types.
C.The user sees nothing displayed, but the typed characters are captured and stored as an encrypted
value.
D.As the user types in the Pwd field, the typed characters display. When focus leaves the field, asterisks
display, and the typed characters are stored as an encrypted value.
Answer:A
20.Janet uses Domino Designer's dynamic help feature to clarify something. What kind of help does she
get?
A.An animated, talking icon that offers to assist her
B.A wizard that follows a support tree to narrow down the answer to her question
C.A personalized search interface that remembers all of her previous searches and their results
D.A context-sensitive Help view that constantly updates a list of possible relevant topics based on what
she's doing.
Answer:D
21.Luke accidentally closed the application navigator in Domino Designer and now he can't see the list of
design elements that he's working on. How can he get it back?
A.Close Domino Designer and reopen it.
B.Click Window > Show Eclipse Views > Applications from the menu.
C.Close Domino Designer and Notes, delete desktop.ndk, and reopen Notes and Designer.
D.Close Domino Designer and Notes, delete bookmarks.nsf, and reopen Notes and Designer.
Answer:B
22.Barb is the lead developer for the Sales application and the Travel application. Each application
consists of multiple databases. Within the application navigator, Barb would like to be able to list the
databases of the Sales application together and then separate from the Sales application, to list the
databases of the Travel application together. How can she do this task?
A.For each application, create a subfolder under the Data folder. Move each set of databases to the
appropriate subfolder. Drag each folder onto the application navigator.
B.Click the Folders icon in the application navigator. Select the option to Create a new Working Set.
Name the Working Set "Sales" and select the databases that comprise the Sales application. Perform a
similar procedure for the Travel application.
C.From Domino Designer select Create > Working Set. Specify "Sales" for the name. From the
Application properties of each database of the Sales application, select "Sales" from the Working Set
drop-down list. Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
D.Edit the Application properties of each database that comprises the Sales application. On the Design
tab, specify Sales for the Working Set option. Repeat for each database of the Sales application. Perform
a similar procedure for the Travel application.
Answer:B
23.Hannah wants to change her font type on her Invoices XPage. What view in the Domino Designer
allows her to do that?
A.Page view
B.Themes view
C.Events view
D.Properties view
Answer:D
24.Malik needs to find all the design elements that reference a particular field in his database. How could
he accomplish this task?
A.Edit > Find Next
B.Edit > Find/Replace
C.File > Application > Analyze Design
D.File > Application > Design Synopsis
Answer:D
25.Robert is adding an editable field called CountryLocation to the Member form in the Video Rental
application. The field should show a value of USA when the document is first created. What formula would
accomplish this behavior?
A."USA" in the field's Default Value object
B."USA" in the field's Input Enabled object
C."USA" in the field's Input Validation object
D."USA" in the field's Input Translation object
Answer:A
26.Ian is coding a translation formula for the Title field on the Video Rental form. Where can Ian find a list
of the formula @Functions that are available to him from within the Designer application?
A.Tools > Help > @Functions
B.Right-click the Title field
C.The Objects tab in the Programming pane
D.The Reference tab in the Programming pane
Answer:D
27.Monroe needs to create an action button that changes a document from read mode to edit mode. What
@Command should he use in this button?
A.@Command([EditCurrent])
B.@Command([EditDocument])
C.@Command([SwitchMode];"Edit")
D.@Command([ToggleMode];"Edit")
Answer:B
28.Burt has been asked to create a unique key to identify each rental transaction in the Video Rental
database. What @Function can he use to create this key?
A.@Key
B.@Unique
C.@UniqueKey
D.@RandomKey
Answer:B
29.Danielle is updating the companyName field on all documents in a view. The field can include varying
text, but the field always includes the text "Blue Corporation." For example, one of the documents has
"Blue Corporation, a wholly-owned subsidiary of GigantaCorp" as the contents of the companyName field.
What formula can Danielle include in her agent to change the "Blue Corporation" text in each
companyName field to now be "Green Enterprises"?
A.FIELD companyName := @Replace( companyName; "Blue Corporation"; "Green Enterprises")
B.FIELD companyName := @SetString(companyName; "Blue Corporation"; "Green Enterprises")
C.FIELD companyName := @Set(@Middle(companyName; "Blue Corporation"); "Green Enterprises")
D.FIELD companyName := @ReplaceSubstring(companyName; "Blue Corporation"; "Green
Enterprises");
Answer:D
30.The @Formula statements that Gustavo is entering for validation formulas on his form are in a smaller
font than he would prefer. How can Gustavo adjust the font that he sees while he is coding within Domino
Designer?
A.Right-click in the Programmer's pane to open the Programmer's Pane properties. Select the font, size,
and color.
B.Select File > Preferences > Domino Designer. Locate the Appearance section. Select Script > Fonts.
Select the font, size, and color.
C.Select Application properties from the application navigator. Select Fonts from the Script area of
Options. Select the font, size, and color.
D.Create a stylesheet with a class named DesignerScript, set the font attributes and import the CSS.
Right-click the stylesheet and select Designer Default.
Answer:A


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2011年4月11日星期一

MB3-859 Microsoft Dynamics GP exam questions and answers

Free MB3-859 exam questions, MB3-859 pratice test are now shared as follows. Please note, some of them are the real MB3-859 exam questions.

1. Northwind Traders created their budget in Microsoft Excel. What is the most efficient way to populate
budget values in Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A.Import the budget using the Budget Wizard for Excel.
B.Enter the budget amount by posting a budget transaction.
C.Create an ODBC connect to the Microsoft Excel budget file and import the file using the budget import
tool.
D.Use the Single-Account Budget Maintenance window and enter the amounts for each account and
period. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: A
2. What are the benefits of using National Accounts?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Parent customers are not setup as a Customer in the Customer Maintenance.
B.Parent customers can process cash receipts on behalf of their child customer.
C.Deleting a national account deletes and removes history on the parent customer and its child customer.
D.Both parent customer and child customer retain their own demographic and sales summary information.
WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: BD
3. What is the Payables Transaction document date?
A.The date the transaction is due.
B.The date the transaction is posted in General Ledger.
C.The system date the transaction was posted on.
D.The date the transaction is posted in Payables Management. WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer:D
4. What are the necessary components for setting up taxes?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Tax Details
B.Tax Definitions
C.Tax Schedules
D.Tax Formulas WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: AC
5. A user only accesses two windows in Microsoft Dynamics GP. What can be done so the user can
quickly access these two windows?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Customize the tool bar to include only those windows.
B.Add a shortcut to those windows on the Navigation Pane.
C.Create a new security role for the user which allows access to only those two windows.
D.Edit the users Dex.ini file to only open those two windows when Microsoft Dynamics GP is launched.
WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: AB
6. What is contained in the Dynamics.set file?
A.Dexterity code used to launch Microsoft Dynamics GP
B.Parameters needed to launch Microsoft Dynamics GP
C.Products installed and reports and forms dictionary locations
D.Location path to the Dynamics.exe file WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: c
7. On a report options window, what field must be populated to generate a report?
A.File Location
B.Option
C.Ranges
D.Sort WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: B
8. What is the keyboard equivalent for the lookup window?
A.Fn + L
B.Alt + L
C.Shift + L
D.Ctrl +L WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: D
9. A user needs to add information explaining the reason for a general journal entry. What type of note
should be attached to the entry?
A.Window level note
B.Master record note
C.Record level note
D.Field level note WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: C
10. Where can a user set the option to view Microsoft Office Outlook calendar appointments in Microsoft
Dynamics GP?
A.Customize Home Page
B.Navigation Pane Options
C.User Security
D.User Preferences WCalibriTahomaZ
Answer: A


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2011年4月10日星期日

640-802 pratice test

Free 640-802 exam questions, 640-802 pratice test are now shared as follows. Please note, some of them are the real 640-802 exam questions.

1.
Refer to the exhibit. What could be possible causes for the "Serial0/0 is down" interface status?
(Choose two.)

A. A Layer 1 problem exists.
B. The bandwidth is set too low.
C. A protocol mismatch exists.
D. An incorrect cable is being used.
E. There is an incorrect IP address on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Answer: AD

2.
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Answer: BD

3.
Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Answer: D

4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is
shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.
Answer: DF

5.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC
6.
A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell the new technician about VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A. A switch in the VTP client mode cannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.
Answer: ABD

7.
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command?
(Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: CE

8.
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
Answer: DE

9.
Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are using a default configuration. Which two destination addresses will host 4 use to send data to host 1? (Choose two.)

A. the IP address of host 1
B. the IP address of host 4
C. the MAC address of host 1
D. the MAC address of host 4
E. the MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of the R1 router
F. the MAC address of the Fa0/1 interface of the R1 router
Answer: AF

10.
Refer to the exhibit. The router has been configured with these commands:
hostname Gateway interface FastEthernet 0/0
ip address 198.133.219.14 255.255.255.248
no shutdown
interface FastEthernet 0/1
ip address 192.168.10.254 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 64.100.0.2 255.255.255.252
no shutdown
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.100.0.1
What are the two results of this configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The default route should have a next hop address of 64.100.0.3.
B. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 are using public IP addressing.
C. The address of the subnet segment with the WWW server will support seven more servers.
D. The addressing scheme allows users on the Internet to access the WWW server.
E. Hosts on the LAN that is connected to FastEthernet 0/1 will not be able to access the Internet without address translation.
Answer: DE

11.
As a CCNA candidate, you need to know EIGRP very well. Which tables of EIGRP route information
are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets? Please choose two
appropriate tables and drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

Only the neighbor table and the topology table of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and
maintained through the use of hello and update packets.

12.
What is the maximum data rate specified for IEEE 802.11b WLANs?
A.10Mbps
B.11Mbps
C.54Mbps
D.100Mbps
Answer:B

13.
How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?
A.by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B.by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C.by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D.by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing exchanges
E.by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Answer:B

14.
Refer to the exhibit. When running OSPF, What would cause router A not to form an adjacency with router B?

A.The loopback addresses are on different subnets.
B.The values of the dead timers on the routers are different.
C.Route summarization is enabled on both routers.
D.The process identifier on router A is different than the process identifier on router B.
Answer:B

15.
Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

A.The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the
number of inside addresses that are supported.
B.Because of the addressing on interface FastEthemet0/1, the Seria0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.
C.The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number1.
D.ExtemalRouter must be configured with static routers to networks 172.16.2.0/24.
Answer:C

16.
Refer to the exhibit. The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from
Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?

A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0
208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10,00:00:07, Serial1/0
208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:07, Serial1/0
208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, Serial1/0
208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10,00:00:07, Serial1/0
208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10,00:00:16, Serial1/0
Answer:A

17.
Refer to exhibit. The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a
host on 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?

A.The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
B.The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C.The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
D.The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
Answer:D

18.
Refer to the exhibit. Switch port FastEthemet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE
802.1Q-compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, What is the reason the truck does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?

A.VLANs have not been created yet.
B.An IP address must be configured for the port.
C.The port is currently configured for access mode.
D.The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E.The no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.
Answer:C

19.Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A.Switch1
B.SWitch2
C.Switch3
D.Switch4
Answer:A



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2011年4月8日星期五

Free HP2-E30 exam questions

Free HP2-E30 exam questions, HP2-E30 pratice test are now shared as follows. Please note, some of them are the real HP2-E30 exam questions.

1.Which advanced infrastructure management software allows customers to analyze and optimize
physical and virtual resources, by decreasing virtualization complexity and increasing infrastructure
agility?
A. Thermal Logic
B. Virtual Connect
C. HP Insight Dynamics
D. Dynamic Power Capping
Answer: C
2.Which statement best describes blade server evolution?
A. Blade servers evolved from storage hardware and services.
B. Blade servers evolved from the creation of virtualization software.
C. Blade servers evolved from the consolidation of traditional rack mount servers.
D. Blade servers evolved from mainframe technology.
Answer: C
3.What are the key differentiators for HP BladeSystem when compared to competitive offerings?
A. Form factors, Thermal Logic technology and Enclosure technology
B. Virtual Connect technology, Thermal Logic Technology and Insight Control
C. Virtual Connect technology, MTBF ratings and low purchase price
D. Intel processors, Enclosure technology and Virtual Connect technology
Answer: B
4.Which HP BladeSystem enclosure is appropriate for branch offices or smaller deployments?
A. c3000
B. c7000
C. BladeCenter QS22
D. Rack 10000 Series
Answer: A
5.Which statement best describes current data center infrastructures
A. Costs remain steady as IT administrators can now fit more blades into current infrastructures.
B. Energy costs are rising as it becomes more difficult to adequately power and cool the data center.
C. Resource allocation has become simpler because data centers are creating silos of compute
resources.
D. Routine administrative tasks take less time because data centers are often centrally located on one
campus.
Answer: B



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2011年4月7日星期四

free 000-106 exam questions

free 000-106 exam questions, 000-106 practice test are here for you as follows. Some of them are the real 000-106 exam questions please note this:
1.What describes the difference between NPIV and vSCSI in the way fibre-channel attached disk and
tape are presented when VIO Server is used?
A. NPIV presents Virtual HBA addresses and vendor specific information for disk and tape devices.vSCSI
presents generic disk and tape device interfaces.
B. NPIV presents generic disk and tape device interfaces on virtual HBA addresses.vSCSI presents HBA
addresses as SCSI with vendor specific information for disk and tape devices.
C. NPIV presents HBA addresses and vendor specific device information directly to the client
partition.vSCSI presents vendor specific disk information and generic tape device interfaces through VIO
server.
D. NPIV presents virtual HBA addresses with generic device information for SCSI based disk and tape
devices.vSCSI presents vendor specific information for disk and tape device devices attached via SCSI
hardware interfaces.
Answer: A
2.Which of the following is included in IBM Systems Director Express Edition?
A. Energy management
B. Virtual image deployment
C. Virtual resource management
D. Networking device management
Answer: C
3.The Power 720 is offered with how many cores?
A. 1, 2, or 4
B. 2, 4, or 6
C. 2, 4, or 8
D. 4, 6, or 8
Answer: D
4.A stock exchange needs extremely low latency in their disk subsystem. Which disk storage technology
is most likely to fulfill their need?
A. SSD
B. SSA
C. SAS
D. SAN
Answer: A
5.A BladeCenter S chassis with 2 storage modules requires how many power supplies?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: C
6.A customer is unsure how POWER7 processors can outperform POWER6 processors when the clock
speeds are slower. What contributes to the improved performance?
A. Added Turbo memory switching
B. Removed internal OLTP limits
C. Moved L3 cache onto the chip
D. Increased DDR2 memory speeds
Answer: C
7.A system is being designed with many LPARs which will be clients of dual VIO Servers. The VIO
Servers must be redundant so that, in the event of scheduled maintenance, the clients do not need to be
shut down.Which of these strategies could be used to ensure that the client LPARs continue to be able to
use the network in the event of a VIO Server being shut down?
A. Implement PowerHA SystemMirror on both VIO servers.
B. Configure Etherchannel between the client LPARs and the two VIO servers
C. Configure Network Interface Backup between the two VIO servers and use each VIO server to access
the network.
D. Implement Shared Ethernet Adapter failover and have all client partitions access the network through
the shared adapters.
Answer: B
8.A Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA) is a structured technical inspection of a completed solution
design. After the inspection is complete, what deliverable can the customer expect?
A. Verification of the expected performance of the new solution.
B. A document used by IBM manufacturing to build and ship the system solution.
C. An IBM Quality Assurance Certificate which is supplied to the customer with the system.
D. A list of actions that are recommended to reduce risk and create a successful implementation.
Answer: A
9.A customer has a 32-core Power 770 with 4 AIX partitions and 2 IBM i partitions. They want to improve
network availability and allow for concurrent maintenance. What will support the customer requirement at
least cost?
A. Build the logical partition infrastructure based on 6 or more VLANs.
B. Build the logical partition infrastructure based on two or more IVEs.
C. Build the logical partition infrastructure based on Partition Mobility.
D. Build the logical partition infrastructure based on redundant VIO Servers.
Answer: C
10.A customer is consolidating seven IBM i partitions onto a POWER7 system, using VIO Server to
virtualize resources.Which of the following PowerVM editions is appropriate for this customer?
A. IBM i Edition
B. Express Edition
C. Standard Edition
D. Enterprise Edition
Answer: D
11.A customer has a Power 780 with 16 cores installed and activated. If the system is running in
TurboCore mode, how many cores are available to use?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
12.When performing an expert level pre-install Technical & Delivery Assessment (TDA), which team
member has the responsibility for assigning, tracking and updating the completion of action items during
the TDA process?
A. The Delivery Leader
B. The Opportunity Owner
C. The Solution Designer
D. The Subject Matter Expert
Answer: B
13.Which of the following includes Active Memory Sharing (AMS)?
A. PowerHA Enterprise Edition
B. PowerVM Enterprise Edition
C. VMControl Enterprise Edition
D. Systems Director Enterprise Edition
Answer: B
14.When considering migrating a POWER6 server with PCI-X and PCIe adapters to a Power 720, which
statement is true?
A. PCIe adapters are supported only in I/O drawers
B. PCI-X adapters are supported in both the CEC and in I/O drawers
C. PCI-X adapters are supported in the CEC; PCIe adapters are supported in 12X I/O drawers
D. PCIe adapters are supported in the CEC; PCI-X adapters are supported in 12X I/O drawers
Answer:D
15.A customer is planning to buy a two enclosure Power 770, and will implement 4 LPARs with the
following requirements:Each LPAR must have a private, dedicated connection to the network.The adapter
for this network connection must be hot-swappable.The customer wants to minimize the number of I/O
slots used.Which of the following fulfills the customer requirements?
A. Two dual-port PCIe adapters
B. A four-port PCIe Ethernet adapter
C. Four separate PCIe Ethernet adapters
D. Two embedded Integrated Virtual Ethernet adapters (IVE)
Answer: C


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2011年4月6日星期三

Real Comptia JK0-017 exam Q&As free download

Free JK0-017 exam questions, JK0-017 practice test are shared as follows. Please note, some of the questions are the real JK0-017 exam questions.

1.A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships.
Which of the following tools is the project manager using?A.ADM
B.WBS
C.AON
D.PDM
Answer: A
2.Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized
location?A.Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make
corrections
B.Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions
C.Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information
D.Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms
Answer: B
3.A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion.
Which of the following would the project manager use to document the details of the project
closure?A.Histogram
B.Postmortem
C.SWOT analysis
D.Project scope statement
Answer: B
4.Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?A.Determine the BAC
of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference
B.Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second
C.Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel.Then calculate the total time taken
D.Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float
Answer: D
5.The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:A.methodology verification
B.scope verification
C.change verification
D.system verification
Answer: B
6.A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than
expected.To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work
overtime, which will increase the cost of the project.Which of the following should be the NEXTA.Ask the
key stakeholder for more funding for the project
B.Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project
C.Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule
D.Agree to complete the project using the new schedule
Answer: C
7.Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other.Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A.Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members
B.Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project
C.Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict
D.Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict
Answer: C
8.In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A.Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements
B.Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope for
the project
C.Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results
D.Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D
9.One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well.The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project.Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A.Ask other members to help
B.Assign the team member to another project
C.Talk to the team member to encourage better performance
D.Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D
10.Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO)
A.Project schedule
B.Competing resource demands
C.Project budget
D.Varying work styles
E.Time zone difference
Answer: BD
11.In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people.The resources are located in Europe.Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A.Communication plan
B.Risk management plan
C.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D.Project scope statement
Answer: C
12.Two employees will not work on the same project together.The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together.This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A.Withdrawing
B.Forcing
C.Accepting
D.Compromising
Answer: B
13.A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase.Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A.Quality log
B.Risk register
C.Issues log
D.Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B
14.A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings.Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO)
A.Include agenda items in the meeting invitation
B.Ensure that the meetings start and end on time
C.Provide criticism to poor team performers
D.Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting
E.Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved
Answer: AE
15.Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component.The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today.The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate their
modifications by the close of business today.Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A.Negotiating
B.Forcing
C.Smoothing
D.Compromise
Answer: B
16.Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A.Be open minded to new ideas to the project
B.Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project
C.Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan
D.Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction
Answer: C
17.Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A.A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved
B.A summary level timetable of the major project milestones
C.A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project
D.A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project
Answer: A
18.A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope.Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A.Construct a detailed plan to implement the change
B.Analyze the Impact of the change request
C.Document the request in the change control log
D.Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep
Answer: A
19.Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project documents?
A.Decision oversight
B.Regulatory compliance
C.Internal process compliance
D.Change management controls
Answer: D
20.Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B.Project warranty
C.Project process reports
D.Earned value calculations
Answer: B
21.The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A.parametric estimating
B.bottom-up estimating
C.expert judgment
D.analogous estimating
Answer: B
22.A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor.This is an example of which of the following actions?
A.Stakeholder analysis
B.Risk assessment
C.Audit review
D.Phase gate
Answer: D
23.A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system.Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
B.Conduct a feasibility study
C.Determine the justification of the project
D.Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee
E.Determine if the project is in alignment with the company strategic plan
Answer: C
24.Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?
A.Team member compensation
B.Statement of Work (SOW)
C.Project needs assessment
D.Control limits
Answer: D
25.The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A.Contingency reserve
B.Project charter
C.Project schedule
D.Project scope statement
Answer: B
26.Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A.56
B.66
C.72
D.132
Answer: C
27.Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A.Start-to-Finish
B.Finish-to-Start
C.Start-to-Start
D.Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B
28.In order to complete the core-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A.Obtain funding for the project
B.Provide quality review of the deliverables
C.Provide leadership to the project team
D.Obtain resolution of the application development Issues
Answer: A
29.Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A.$90,000
B.$140,000
C.$150,000
D.$160,000
Answer: C
30.A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task.Which of the following should the project manager do?
A.Reassign the individual to another role on the project team
B.Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best
C.Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further
D.Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person
Answer: C


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Real IBM HP2-H08 exam Q&As free download



Real IBM HP2-H08 exam Q&As free download

1.An HP product carries a 3-3-3 warranty. What does this mean?
A. The product carries a 3 year parts, 3 year labor warranty, with no onsite service.
B. The product carries a nine year warranty on all parts, labor, and updates.
C. The product carries a 3 year parts, labor, and onsite service warranty.
D. The product carries an advanced replacement warranty.
Answer: C
2.What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C
3.A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D
4.What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B
5.What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A
6.Identify two BIOS security features introduced with the HP BIOS based on Unified Extensible Firmware
Interface (UEFI). (Select two.)
A. system recovery
B. BIOS user accounts
C. boot device options
D. SpareKey
E. DriveLock
Answer: B,D
7.Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C
8.What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B
9.Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C
10.What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C
11.Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. WindowsVista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C
12.What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is inhibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A
13.A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D
14.Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HPTouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C
15.What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convertDisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D
16.Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C
17.Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B
18.Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B
19.Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A
20.The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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